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The Holy Spirit

Questions or points in this section...

What are the Seven Spirits of Revelation?

What about John 16:13-14?

The gender of pronouns referring to the Holy Spirit

Does Matthew 28 prove that the Holy Spirit is a being?

What does Matthew 28:19 mean?

Is Jesus the Holy Spirit?

What do you think about Acts 5:3, 4?

Is the Holy Spirit God?

Is the Holy Spirit a person?

Whose Spirit is the Holy Spirit?

Into whose name should a Christian be baptized?

How do you explain Mark 3:29?

Where are OT promises of the Comforter?

The personality of the Holy Spirit

 

Question: What are the Seven Spirits of Revelation?

“I would like to know about the so-called Trinity. The nature of God the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit and whether the Spirit has anything to do with the seven spirits of Revelation 1.”

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Answer:

We have so much literature on this subject that I will not go into it here. For further study on this subject, the following materials may be requested: “The Love of God,” “God’s Plan to Save You,” “The Truth About God,” “The Importance of Knowing the Truth About God,” “The Holy Spirit,” “Satan’s Deadliest Lie,” “Which God,” “The God of the Bible,” and “The Formulation of the Doctrine of the Trinity.”

The seven spirits in Revelation 1 refer to the angels. “Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits [Angels—see Revelation 3:1; 4:5; 5:6; 8:2; Zechariah 4:10; Hebrews 1:14; 1 Timothy 5:21; and Adam Clarke’s Commentary.] which are before his throne;  And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth.” (Revelation 1:4, 5) It is true that the angels minister the Holy Spirit to us just as God has commissioned us to minister the Spirit to others. (See Galatians 3:5; Zechariah 4 and the April 1999 issue of Present Truth for a thorough study on this subject.)

This question and its answer were printed in the June 2001 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: What about John 16:13-14?

“For my own understanding, may I ask your perception on the following Scripture? John 16:13-14: ‘Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.’ Jesus refers to the Holy Spirit as first person singular [third person singular Editor], not just as the Spirit or a spirit. I would really like your input on this subject.”

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Answer:

The Greek word that was translated “he” in John 16:13, 14, and in some other similar verses referring to the Spirit of God, is ekeinoVekeinos (with the Strong’s number of 1565). Ekeinos is found 251 times in the New Testament and was translated in the KJV in the following manner: that 99, those 40, he 40, the same 20, they 14, miscellaneously translated 38.

There are several other places in the Bible where the Spirit is referred to as “he” and the Greek word autoVautos (with the Strong’s number of 846) was used. Autos is found 5785 times in the New Testament and was translated in the KJV in the following manner: him 1952, his 1084, their 318, he 252, her 242, they 121, same 80, himself 58, miscellaneously translated 1678. This word was translated something other than “he, him, her, they, their, his, same, himself” 1678 times. Many of those times it was translated “it” or “itself” as found in Romans 8:26 referring to the Spirit of God. “Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself [autos #846] maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.” (Romans 8:26)

Here are a few verses where this Greek word was translated “it.”

Matthew 5:15 “put it [autos] under a bushel.”

Matthew 7:14 “few there be that find it [autos].”

Matthew 10:11 “who in it [autos] is worthy.”

(Also see Matthew 10:12,13,39; 12:39,41,42; 14:12; 16:18; 21:19,34; 23:18,20,21; 26:27,29,61; 27:59,60; Mark 4:7,32,37; 6:28,29; 9:50. The list goes on and on.)

It is obvious that the Greek words ekeinos and autos are not gender specific of themselves. In other words we cannot determine personality or gender based upon the fact that these words were used.

The reason the Greek words autos and ekeinos were translated into any pronoun, whether it was a personal pronoun or not, is that the distinguishing factor was determined by the type of noun the pronoun supported. For example, if the noun was a male person, the pronoun “autos” should properly be translated “he” and if the noun was a female person, the same pronoun “autos” should be properly translated “she.” If the noun was impersonal, or neuter, such as a “city,” “salt,” “candle,” etc. then the pronoun “autos” should properly be translated “it.” So to determine which English equivalent is accurate we must examine the noun which the pronoun supports. If the noun is masculine the pronoun should be translated “he,” if it is feminine it should be translated “she,” but if it is neuter (neither masculine nor feminine) then it should be translated “it.”

This is important when we look at verses which refer to the Spirit of God as “he” when there are other verses that refer to the Spirit of God as “itself,” i.e. Romans 8:16, 26. The fact is that the Greek word pneuma pneuma (translated Spirit) is neuter, being neither masculine nor feminine, and therefore every time the pronouns “autos” or “ekeinos” are used in the Bible in reference to God’s Spirit they must be translated “it,” rather than “he” if we are going to translate them accurately. I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the August 2001 issue of Present Truth.

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Point: The gender of pronouns referring to the Holy Spirit

“I am writing to you concerning your August 2001 newsletter… I want to write to you about your grammar and translation statements concerning the Greek text. I am sorry to write these things to you but your Greek is poor and should be stopped unless you take some classes… I refer you to your response to a reader on page 4 concerning the masculine pronouns used in the Greek text when the Holy Spirit is being spoken of. These pronouns are autoV and ekeinoV. These pronouns have masculine, feminine, and neuter genders… Therefore your first error is when you say, ‘The Greek words are not gender specific of themselves.’… It is slightly correct that the translation from Greek to English reflects the English understanding of gender when referring to objects as opposed to persons. Your examples of the translation of the pronoun as ‘it’ are good.”

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Answer:

Thank you for your kindness in sharing these things with me. I was wrong to write that the Greek pronouns autoV and ekeinoV are not gender specific of themselves. I would like to publicly apologize to the readers of Present Truth for this mistake. Thanks to your prompting, a very helpful Bible program for the computer, and the guidance of God’s Spirit, I have found out that these pronouns are gender specific. However, my original findings were correct in so far as the gender of the nouns determine the gender of the corresponding pronouns.

After studying the genders of nouns and pronouns in Greek, I have found several things that I would like to share with all of you. I would like to inform the readers of Present Truth that I am not a Greek scholar. I simply use the tools which God has placed in my hands and I learn as I go. Thanks to God, I know much more about Greek genders than I did a few months ago. I encourage each of you to study everything out for yourself and do not accept my word as an authority. “Let God be true, but every man a liar.” (Romans 3:4)

Jesus said, “I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he [ekeinoV masculine with Strong’s #1565], the Spirit [pneuma neuter] of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself [eautou masculine with Strong’s #1438]; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He [ekeinoV masculine with Strong’s #1565] shall glorify me: for he shall receive of mine, and shall shew it unto you.” (John 16:12-14)

Notice that the pronouns in this verse are masculine while the noun “Spirit” is neuter. This indicates that the pronouns do not refer to “Spirit” but rather to some other noun under discussion earlier. We find that noun in verse 7. Jesus said, “Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter [parakletoV masculine] will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.” (John 16:7)

However, we know that the Comforter is the Holy Spirit. Jesus said, “The Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you all things, and bring all things to your remembrance, whatsoever I have said unto you.” (John 14:26)

I would like you to notice something here. It is true that the Greek word that was translated “Comforter” is a masculine noun that refers to the Holy Spirit. However, this does not indicate that the Holy Spirit is a literal male individual separate from the Father and His Son.

For example, an angel said, “And this shall be a sign unto you; Ye shall find the babe [brefoV neuter] wrapped in swaddling clothes, lying in a manger [fatnh feminine].” (Luke 2:12) Here is an example of how the gender of nouns cannot be relied upon to determine the personality of nouns. The Greek word that was translated babe is a neuter noun even though the babe is a male person. In the same sentence the Greek word that was translated manger is a feminine noun even though a manger is an inanimate object. If there were any Greek pronouns in this verse referring to either the babe or the manger, the pronouns would be the same gender as the nouns they modify.

I would also like to point out that the Greek word parakletoV that was translated Comforter was used five times in the Bible. Four times it was translated Comforter and one time it was translated Advocate. John wrote, “My little children, these things write I unto you, that ye sin not. And if any man sin, we have an advocate [parakleton] with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous.” (1 John 2:1) So Jesus Christ is the Comforter yet, more specifically, it is the Spirit of Christ that is our Comforter. “And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.” (Galatians 4:6) The Spirit of Christ is not a separate person from Himself and therefore it is proper to refer to Christ, or to His Spirit as our Comforter. However, using the Greek word parakletoV in the masculine gender to refer to the Holy Spirit does not indicate that the Holy Spirit is a separate individual from the Father and His Son.

Many times in the Bible Jesus is referred to as a “Lamb.” The Greek word that was translated “Lamb” is a neuter noun even though we know Jesus is a male person. “These shall make war with the Lamb [arniou neuter], and the Lamb [arnion neuter] shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings: and they that are with him are called, and chosen, and faithful.” (Revelation 17:14)

So it is evident that the gender of titles in Greek for an individual or a thing does not indicate that a person or thing is literally male, female, or neuter.

I would like to point something out here. Please notice the two different Greek pronouns that were translated “he” in John 16:12-14. In each case the pronoun is masculine. The Greek pronouns ekeinoV and eautou, even when they are masculine, do not always indicate that the noun they modify is literally a male person. Oftentimes, ekeinoV and eautou in the masculine gender refer to inanimate objects or ideas rather than personal beings.

Let us examine a few verses that will make this plain. We will start with the Greek word ekeinoV when it is in the masculine gender.

“At that [ekeinw masculine] time [kairw masculine] Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.” (Matthew 11:25) It is obvious that time is not a personal being, but rather, it is a created entity showing that ekeinoV in the masculine form does not necessarily refer to an actual being.

“Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto treasure hid in a field; the which when a man hath found, he hideth, and for joy thereof goeth and selleth all that he hath, and buyeth that [ekeinon masculine] field [agron masculine].” (Matthew 13:44) Again, it is plain that field is an inanimate object, yet it is referred to using a masculine pronoun.

Here are a few more examples:

“And when the men of that [ekeinou masculine] place [topou masculine] had knowledge of him, they sent out into all that country round about, and brought unto him all that were diseased.” (Matthew 14:35)

“Notwithstanding, lest we should offend them, go thou to the sea, and cast an hook, and take up the fish that first cometh up; and when thou hast opened his mouth, thou shalt find a piece of money [statehra masculine]: that [ekeinon masculine] take, and give unto them for me and thee.” (Matthew 17:27)

“Wherefore that [ekeinoV masculine] field [agroV masculine] was called, The field of blood, unto this day.” (Matthew 27:8)

“Whosoever shall fall upon that [ekeinon masculine] stone [liqon masculine] shall be broken; but on whomsoever it shall fall, it will grind him to powder.” (Luke 20:18)

(For more examples of ekeinoV in the masculine gender referring to inanimate objects, also see Matthew 12:1; Matthew 14:1; Luke 20:35; John 1:8; John 11:49; John 11:51; John 12:48; John 18:13; Acts 12:1; Acts 16:3; Acts 19:16; Acts 19:23; Acts 28:7; Ephesians 2:12)

Now let us look at some examples where the Greek pronoun ekeinoV is found in the feminine gender when it refers to inanimate objects.

“In those [ekeinaiV feminine] days [hmeraiV feminine] came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea.” (Matthew 3:1) Obviously days are not individual persons, and an accurate English translation should never have “she” as a pronoun referring to “days.”

“And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that [ekeinh feminine] house [oikia feminine]; and it fell not: for it was founded upon a rock.” (Matthew 7:25) Again, house is obviously not a personal being, yet it is referred to by a feminine pronoun.

“If any man see his brother sin a sin which is not unto death, he shall ask, and he shall give him life for them that sin not unto death. There is a sin [amartia feminine] unto death: I do not say that he shall pray for it [ekeinhV feminine].” (1 John 5:16) Obviously sin is not a personal being even though it is referred to by a feminine pronoun.

(For more examples of where the Greek pronoun ekeinoV in the feminine gender refers to inanimate objects, please see the following verses: Matthew 7:22, 27; 8:13, 28; Matthew 9:22, 26, 31; 10:14, 15, 19; 13:1; 14:35; Mark 1:9; 2:20; 3:24, 25; Luke 2:1; 4:2; 5:35; John 1:39; 4:39; Acts 2:18, 41; 7:41; 2 Corinthians 7:8, etc.)

Now let’s look at the Greek pronoun eautou in the masculine gender, where it refers to an inanimate object.

“It is like a grain [kokkw masculine] of mustard seed, which a man took, and cast into his garden; and it [eautou masculine] grew, and waxed a great tree; and the fowls of the air lodged in the branches of it.” (Luke 13:19)

Now let’s look at some examples of where the Greek pronoun eautou is used in the feminine gender and refers to inanimate objects.

“Take therefore no thought for the morrow: for the morrow shall take thought for the things of itself [eauthV feminine]. Sufficient unto the day is the evil thereof.” (Matthew 6:34)

“And Jesus knew their thoughts, and said unto them, Every kingdom divided against itself [eauthV feminine] is brought to desolation; and every city or house divided against itself [eauthV feminine] shall not stand.” (Matthew 12:25)

Based on the evidence of the Scriptural usage of the Greek pronouns ekeinoV and eautou, it is clear that the usage of these pronouns in the masculine gender referring to the Holy Spirit does not prove that the Holy Spirit is an individual being separate from the Father and His Son. It is clear that you cannot conclusively prove whether an object is a living, being based solely on the gender of a noun or pronoun used when referring to it. The attempt on the part of some Trinitarians to prove that the Holy Spirit is a personal being, based on the fact that the Greek pronouns ekeinoV and eautou are found in the masculine gender in John 16:13, has been shown to be without foundation. In fact, in John chapter 14 where Jesus began His conversation about the Comforter, neuter pronouns are used rather than masculine pronouns.

Let’s examine that now. Jesus said “I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; Even the Spirit [pneuma neuter] of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him [auto neuter] not, neither knoweth him [auto neuter]: but ye know him [auto neuter]; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you. I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.” (John 14:16-18)

If we are to properly translate verse 17, based on the gender of the nouns and pronouns, we must translate it in this way: “Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth it not, neither knoweth it: but ye know it; for it dwelleth with you, and shall be in you.” (John 14:17) The New American Bible translated this verse in the following way: “the Spirit of truth, which the world cannot accept, because it neither sees nor knows it. But you know it, because it remains with you, and will be in you.” (John 14:17 NAB) And in the Rotherham Bible it reads like this: “The Spirit of truth,—which, the world, cannot receive, because it beholdeth it not, nor getteth to know it. But, ye, are getting to know it; because, with you, it abideth, and, in you, it is.” (John 14:17)

Some Greek-English Interlinear Bibles translate John 14:17 by using the pronoun “it” as well. In one Greek-English Interlinear Bible this verse was translated in this way with a footnote that read something like this: “The Greek word pneuma which was translated Spirit in this verse is neuter and therefore we have used the pronoun ‘it’ rather than ‘he,’ even though we know the Holy Spirit is a person.” Now, how these people know that the Holy Spirit is a person remains a mystery to me.

Even in the King James Bible the Holy Spirit is referred to as “it” at least three times.

“And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and it abode upon him.” (John 1:32)

“The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God.” (Romans 8:16)

“Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.” (Romans 8:26)

Every person has a spirit, but in no case is that spirit a separate person from the one who owns the spirit. I have a spirit, but it is not a different person from me. God the Father has a Spirit, and His Spirit is holy, but His Spirit is not a separate person from Himself. If it were, the Bible would support this idea, but it does not. (For a thorough study on this subject, please contact us and request a free copy of the tract entitled “The Holy Spirit.”)

I will show a few examples where the Greek pronoun autoV is used in the Bible in the neuter gender.

“But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it [auto neuter] new with you in my Father’s kingdom.” (Matthew 26:29)

“Every branch in me that beareth not fruit he taketh away: and every branch that beareth fruit, he purgeth it [auto neuter], that it may bring forth more fruit.” (John 15:2)

“And he said unto them, Cast the net on the right side of the ship, and ye shall find. They cast therefore, and now they were not able to draw it [auto neuter] for the multitude of fishes.” (John 21:6)

“For I neither received it [auto neuter] of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.” (Galatians 1:12)

Now let’s look at a few examples where the Greek pronoun autoV is used in the masculine gender and refers to inanimate objects rather than male individuals.

“Neither do men light a candle, and put it [auton masculine] under a bushel, but on a candlestick; and it giveth light unto all that are in the house.” (Matthew 5:15)

“Again, the kingdom of heaven is like unto a merchant man, seeking goodly pearls: Who, when he had found one pearl [margarithn masculine] of great price, went and sold all that he had, and bought it [auton masculine].” (Matthew 13:45, 46)

“Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except a corn [kokkoV masculine] of wheat fall into the ground and die, it [autoV masculine] abideth alone: but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit.” (John 12:24)

Now let’s look at a few examples where the Greek pronoun autoV is used in the feminine gender and refers to inanimate objects rather than female individuals.

“And if thy right hand [ceir feminine] offend thee, cut it [authn feminine] off, and cast it from thee: for it is profitable for thee that one of thy members should perish, and not that thy whole body should be cast into hell.” (Matthew 5:30)

“And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house [oikia feminine]; and it fell: and great was the fall of it [authV feminine].” (Matthew 7:27)

“Our fathers had the tabernacle [skhnh feminine] of witness in the wilderness, as he had appointed, speaking unto Moses, that he should make it [authn feminine] according to the fashion that he had seen.” (Acts 7:44)

“And the twelve gates were twelve pearls; every several gate was of one pearl: and the street of the city [poliV feminine] was pure gold, as it were transparent glass. And I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple of it [auth feminine] And the city had no need of the sun, neither of the moon, to shine in it [auth feminine]: for the glory of God did lighten it [authV feminine], and the Lamb is the light thereof.” (Revelation 21:21-23)

From the evidence we have examined, we have seen that the use of any pronoun in the masculine gender, referring to the Holy Spirit, does not indicate that the Holy Spirit is a separate being apart from the Father and His Son. You cannot determine whether an object is a personal being or an inanimate object based solely upon the gender of a noun or pronoun in the Greek. It is clear that whatever we are to learn about the personality of the Holy Spirit, we cannot rely on the gender of nouns and pronouns, but we must look elsewhere.

This question and its answer were printed in the November 2001 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Does Matthew 28 prove that the Holy Spirit is a being?

“If the Holy Spirit is not a being, why then did Jesus in Matthew 28 say disciples are to be baptized in the name of the Father and of the Son and the Holy Spirit?”

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Answer:

The Holy Spirit is the omnipresence of the being of God Himself. God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth.” (John 4:24) Yet, as we read the Bible we find that the Holy Spirit is not a separate being from the Father and His Son, but rather the omnipresent Spirit of God, which is holy. “Whither shall I go from thy spirit? or whither shall I flee from thy presence?” (Psalms 139:7)

Regarding Matthew 28, Jesus was talking to His disciples when He said, “Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.” (Matthew 28:19) Peter, who was a disciple of Jesus, was obviously present when Jesus gave this command. If we want to know what Jesus meant by this command, we can trust Peter to give us the proper understanding. Let’s turn to the text of Scripture where this command of Jesus was obeyed for the first time. In Acts chapter two Peter said, “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.” (Acts 2:38) Here Peter instructed these people to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, rather than in three separate names. But, supposing Peter temporarily forgot the command of Jesus, let us find more evidence.

In Acts chapter 10, Peter “commanded [Cornelius and his brethren] to be baptized in the name of the Lord.” (Acts 10:48) From these verses it is plain that Peter must have understood the command of Jesus differently than most Trinitarians understand it today. However, maybe Peter was alone in his understanding of this command.

When Peter and John came to Samaria they found a group of people who had been “baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.” (Acts 8:16) Obviously Peter was not alone in his understanding of the command of Jesus.

What about Paul? Keep in mind that Paul said of the gospel he preached, “I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.” (Galatians 1:12) How did Jesus teach Paul to baptize?

When Paul visited Ephesus he met certain brethren there who had only been baptized by John’s baptism. Paul instructed them about Christ, and “when they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.” (Acts 19:5)

There is no record in the Bible of anyone baptizing in three separate names of three individual persons. Now there are three possibilities that could explain this. 1) The disciples were in direct rebellion against Jesus and purposely disobeyed His commandment. 2) The disciples understood the command of Jesus differently than most Trinitarians understand it today. 3) Jesus never gave the command to baptize “in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.”

The most logical and reasonable of these possibilities is choice number two. The disciples obviously understood the command of Jesus differently than most Trinitarians understand it today.

Let us look at it in another way. Jesus commissioned us to baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit (Greek pneuma). Was Jesus, by making this commission, trying to teach the idea of a trinity? I think not, or He would have been contradicting other statements He made, and many statements made by other Bible writers. There is nothing in the verse that says there are three persons in the Godhead. There is nothing in the verse that says who is God. The word “God” is completely missing from the verse. We learn elsewhere in the Bible that the “one God” of the Bible is the Father. Paul wrote, “To us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.” (1 Corinthians 8:6) The Bible uses the phrase, “God the Father” thirteen times, but it never says, “God the Son,” or “God the Holy Spirit.”

Notice also that the verse says we are to baptize in the name of… Why is it singular if there are supposed to be three persons? The word name in the Bible often refers to a person’s character. Jacob’s name was changed to Israel because his character had changed. If we believe this verse to be referring to actual names of three individuals, as most Trinitarians suppose, then it would be impossible to fulfill the command. The text says to baptize “in the name of…” Simply reciting the statement, “I baptize you in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost” is not fulfilling the command. To baptize someone in the name of a person we must know the person’s name. It would be possible for us to baptize in the literal name of the Father, for we know His name: Yahweh or Jehovah. It would also be possible for us to baptize in the literal name of the Son, for we know His name: Yahshua or Jesus. But it is not possible for us to baptize someone in the literal name of the Holy Spirit, for nobody knows that name, if it exists.

The Father anointed His Son with His own Spirit. Therefore they have the same Spirit. “Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.” (Hebrews 1:9) “For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.” (John 3:34) As plainly shown, the Father has given His Son His Spirit. What type of spirit do they share? Surely, it is a Holy Spirit. The Bible mentions several different types of spirit. We read in the Bible about “foul spirit,” “evil spirit,” “unclean spirit,” “dumb spirit,” “excellent spirit,” “humble spirit,” “wounded spirit,” “broken spirit,” “haughty spirit,” “faithful spirit,” “good spirit.” All these spirits are distinguishable by the adjective that describes them. We know that God the Father has a spirit, and can that spirit be anything else, or anything less, than Holy? The word “Holy” is an adjective in every case, whether in English or in Greek. “Holy Spirit” is not a name, but a description of the Spirit of God.

Matthew 28:19 certainly does not prove a trinity, nor does it prove that the Holy Spirit is a separate being from the Father and His Son. If we are to find proof of these doctrines in the Bible we must look elsewhere.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the April 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: What does Matthew 28:19 mean?

“I greatly appreciate your answer to someone in Zimbabwe about baptizing in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost (April 2002 Present Truth), although I did not really gain an answer of what Jesus meant by this commission. Could you please explain from the Scriptures if the scripture explains this; although I greatly appreciate your silence where the Scriptures are silent.”

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Answer:

Thank you for pointing out that the verse was not thoroughly explained. In the answer you refer to I was mainly focusing on what it does not mean, namely it does not mean that there are three persons in one God as so many trinitarians wish to believe. Jesus said, “All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world.” (Matthew 28:18-20)

As we noticed in the April 2002 issue of Present Truth, Jesus was not giving a specific formula of words for the preacher to recite at a baptism. We know this because,

1) There is no record in the Bible of anyone using that formula at a baptism.

2) All the recorded examples of people baptizing after this command was given show that it was done in the name of Jesus. (See Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48; 19:5.)

3) The word name is singular, indicating that it has reference to the character rather than to proper names of individuals.

4) It would not be possible to literally baptize in the proper name of the Holy Spirit, because we have not been given that name, if such a name exists.

Once we realize that Christ was commissioning His disciples to baptize into the character of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, it is easier for us to understand His words. Several times in the Bible the word baptize refers to something other than literally immersing in water. For example:

Long after Christ’s literal baptism in water He said, “I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!” (Luke 12:50) Here it is obvious that Jesus was not referring to being literally immersed in water, but rather to an experience He would encounter. This experience was to be so intense that it could be described by using the word baptize which literally means, “to immerse, submerge; to make overwhelmed.” (Strong’s Greek Dictionary)

Jesus used the word baptize in the same way in the following verses: He said to James and John, “Ye know not what ye ask. Are ye able to drink of the cup that I shall drink of, and to be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? They say unto him, We are able. And he saith unto them, Ye shall drink indeed of my cup, and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with: but to sit on my right hand, and on my left, is not mine to give, but it shall be given to them for whom it is prepared of my Father.” (Matthew 20:22, 23)

In these verses Jesus used the word baptize to signify passing through an overwhelming experience. Paul used the word in this way when he wrote, “For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.” (Galatians 3:27) Being baptized into Christ is more than just being immersed in water, but rather indicates a complete dedication to Christ.

We could look at Christ’s words in Matthew 28:19 in this way: “Go ye, therefore, and disciple all the nations, Immersing them into the name [character] of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.” (Matthew 28:19 Rotherham Version) This command is closely connected with the command to teach. Christ wants His disciples to understand the truth about God, His Son, and the Holy Spirit of God.

In Acts 2:38 we see the principles of the great commission demonstrated. On the day of Pentecost Peter proclaimed, “Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost. For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.” (Acts 2:38) The Father calls or draws (John 6:44) us to Christ, we are literally baptized in the name of Jesus Christ, and the Father gives us the gift of the Holy Spirit to guide us in our Christian lives.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the July 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Is Jesus the Holy Spirit?

“I observed in the tract on the Holy Spirit the equation: ‘Jesus Christ = The Lord; the Lord = That Spirit, Therefore: Jesus Christ = That Spirit.’ It also continues to prove that Jesus is our Comforter, therefore Jesus is the Holy Spirit. This assertion can be misleading as it gives the impression that the Holy Spirit is Jesus. I am sure that’s not exactly what you mean (or is it?). After all, it is quite clear that ‘the Holy Spirit’ is a ‘third’ ‘entity’ though not a person. (Matthew 12:30-32; Matthew 28:19, etc.) I have not distributed this tract as it can misrepresent the truth as we know it. Please consider and clarify.”

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Answer:

It is true that the Lord Jesus is that Spirit, our Comforter, but to state it more completely, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father coming to us through His Son, giving us the added benefit of having the Spirit of His Son who was victorious over all sin. (Galatians 4:6) When speaking of the promised Comforter Jesus said,

And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever; Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you. I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you. (John 14:16-18)

Here Jesus made it clear that He would return to His disciples as the promised Comforter. He said that this Comforter was already dwelling with them, on the outside, but soon He would be in them. Then Christ said that He would come to them. Jesus continued, “At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.” (John 14:20) Jesus said that the day the Comforter comes to them, His disciples would know that He was in them. He further explains, “If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.” (John 14:23) Here we see that the promised Comforter that would come to the disciples was both the Spirit of the Father and the Spirit of His Son. When we receive the Spirit of the Son, we receive the Spirit of the Father because the Father dwells in His Son by His Spirit.

The Holy Spirit proceeds “from the Father” (John 15:26), to the Son, and from the Son to us. (See John 3:34 and Titus 3:5, 6.) Then we can have personal fellowship with both the Father and His Son. “Truly our fellowship is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.” (1 John 1:3) “He that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.” (1 John 2:23)

You wrote, “it is quite clear that ‘the Holy Spirit’ is a ‘third’ ‘entity’ though not a person.” Actually, this is not clear, it is not even taught in the Bible at all. According to Webster’s New Explorer Dictionary, the word “entity” means, “something with separate and real existence.” This could not be true of the Holy Spirit, for the Bible says that it “proceedeth from the Father.” (John 15:26) The Greek word that was translated proceedeth is in present tense, indicating a continual process of proceeding from the Father. Since the Holy Spirit continually proceeds from the Father, it could not have a separate existence from the Father.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the December 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: What do you think about Acts 5:3, 4?

“Acts 5:3, 4… indicates that the Holy Spirit is God. What do you think about it?”

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Answer:

Let’s read these verses.

But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the Holy Ghost, and to keep back part of the price of the land? Whiles it remained, was it not thine own? and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God. (Acts 5:3, 4)

Many Trinitarians use these verses as conclusive evidence that the Holy Spirit is a third separate person, or being, called God the Holy Spirit, but that is not what these verses say. According to the Bible, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God. “And grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.” (Ephesians 4:30) The Holy Spirit is called, “the Spirit of your Father.” Please compare the following verses as evidence of this fact: “For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.” (Matthew 10:20) Mark wrote, “for it is not ye that speak, but the Holy Ghost.” (Mark 13:11) “The Holy Ghost” is “the Spirit of your Father.”

Jesus said as much when he explained, “But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me.” (John 15:26) The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God, the Father, which proceeds from Him, through His Son Jesus Christ, to us. Paul wrote, “Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour.” (Titus 3:5, 6) When we receive the Spirit of the Father coming to us through His Son, we receive the added benefit of receiving the Spirit of His Son as well. “And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.” (Galatians 4:6) Jesus said, “If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.” (John 14:23)

On the day of Pentecost Peter taught the same truth when he preached, “This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.” (Acts 2:32, 33) Jesus said, “your heavenly Father [shall] give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him.” (Luke 11:13)

When we realize that the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father coming to us through His Son, Acts 5:3, 4 makes perfect sense. Please read it again and see for yourself.

The word holy is an adjective, providing us with a description of God’s Spirit. God has a Spirit, and His Spirit is holy. To lie to God’s Spirit is to lie to God. That is because His Spirit is Himself, not another person. If I were to lie to your spirit, you would not suppose that I lied to someone other than yourself. Let us be just as reasonable with the Scriptures when they refer to God’s Spirit.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the December 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Is the Holy Spirit God?

“Is the Holy Spirit God?”

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Answer:

That is like asking, “Is the spirit of Lynnford Lynnford?” or “Is the spirit of Lynnford human?” If we wish to distinguish the spirit of Lynnford from another person, then yes, the spirit of Lynnford is Lynnford. If we wish to define the nature of the spirit of Lynnford, then yes, Lynnford’s spirit is human. However, Lynnford, who is human, is made up of more than just his spirit.

The Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God, not a separate God, or being apart from God Himself. The Bible says, “God is a Spirit” (John 4:24), but God is more than that because He has hands, a head, hair, a form, a garment, He can sit, etc. (Revelation 5:1; Daniel 7:9; Philippians 2:6) God is a complete being. The Apostle James wrote, “The body without the spirit is dead.” (James 2:26) There is more to an individual than just his spirit, but the spirit of an individual is “the inner man,” (Ephesians 3:16) the part of man that goes “back to God” in an unconscious state at death, and will “put on immortality” if that man is righteous.

God is a Spirit, but there is more to God than Spirit. He also has a body, a form. So to say “God is a Spirit” is accurate, but to turn it around and say, “the Spirit is God,” is not completely true, because God is more than just Spirit. The Bible says “God is love,” but to turn it around and say “love is God” would not be true, because God is much more than love. The same can be said of the statement, “God is light.” (1 John 1:5) The Holy Spirit is not someone other than God and, in that sense, the Holy Spirit is God, but God is more than just His Spirit, and we should not worship, praise, or pray to His Spirit.

I hope this helps to clarify your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the December 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Is the Holy Spirit a person?

“What about when the Bible says about the holy spirit speaking, ‘Thus saith the holy spirit?’ Does this show a person?”

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Answer:

The Holy Spirit of God is spoken of as God’s “presence,” (Psalm 51:11; 139:7) and this presence is said to be everywhere. It is through God’s Spirit that He is able to be present in all places at the same time. Thus, when the Bible says, “the Holy Ghost said,” (Acts 13:2) it is God Himself speaking to people by means of His Holy Spirit. This does not indicate that the Holy Spirit is a separate person from that of the Father and His Son.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the December 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Whose Spirit is the Holy Spirit?

“Is the Holy Spirit the Father’s Spirit or the Son’s Spirit or both at the same time or different Spirits at different times (in other words, is it sometimes Christ’s Spirit and sometimes the Father’s Spirit)?”

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Answer:

Strictly speaking, the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of the Father, which “proceedeth from the Father,” (John 15:26) yet at times, the Holy Spirit is called, “the Spirit of Christ.” For example, compare 1 Peter 1:11 and 2 Peter 1:21. Both of these are true, for Jesus received His Father’s Spirit without measure (John 3:34), so that the Son has His Father’s Spirit. The Bible says that God sends us His Spirit through His Son. “Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour.” (Titus 3:5, 6) By this process we gain the added benefit of receiving not only the Spirit of the Father, but also the Spirit of His Son. Jesus said, “If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.” (John 14:23) Paul wrote, “because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.” (Galatians 4:6)

Jesus said, “I am in the Father, and the Father in me.” (John 14:10) If we receive the Spirit of one (the Father or the Son), we automatically receive the Spirit of the other, for they dwell in each other the same way they dwell in us, by their Spirit. “Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: (but) he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.” (1 John 2:23) “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.” (2 John 1:9)

This question and its answer were printed in the December 2002 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Into whose name should a Christian be baptized?

“Matthew 28:19 says, ‘Baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.’ I now still baptize in three of them. What is your idea on this? If someone wants to be born again, how must we baptize him?”

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Answer:

Every time the apostles baptized in water after they heard the command of Jesus, they did so in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ. (See Acts 2:38; 8:6; 10:48; and 19:5.) 

If we insist that a person must baptize in three names, then we must say that the apostles were wrong to baptize the way they did. Either we are wrong to insist on three names, or they were wrong to baptize in only one name. 

Christ’s words were not a formula to recite at baptism but a command to teach, or immerse in the truth, about the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, all of which are vital in a Christian’s experience. 

For further explanation of Matthew 28:19, please read the “Questions and Answers” section of the April and July 2002 issues of Present Truth, available by request or online at www.presenttruth.info. 

This question and its answer were printed in the August 2003 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: How do you explain Mark 3:29?

“In [your tract] ‘The God of the Bible’s’ questions and answers I read that ‘…if men worship the Holy Spirit they would worship a god who does not exist.’ However, how do you explain or reconcile what Jesus says in Mark 3:29?”

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Answer:

Thank you for your question. To clarify, the statement of the tract, in context, is warning against worshiping the Holy Spirit as a third individual, apart and separate from God, the Father, and His Son, Jesus Christ. Since “God is a Spirit” (John 4:24), when we worship God, we are worshiping a Spirit, but it is not a separate individual apart from God, the Father.

Now, to your question, Jesus said, “Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme: But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation.” (Mark 3:28, 29) Some people take this to mean that we can blaspheme against God, the Father, and His Son, Jesus Christ, and be forgiven, but that a third person called the Holy Ghost is so highly exalted that if men blaspheme him, they can never be forgiven. To the contrary, Jesus was not talking about a sudden word or action against the Holy Ghost, but a continual rejection of its promptings upon the heart. The blasphemy of the Holy Ghost is when a person has stubbornly ignored the gentle convictions of God’s Spirit so long and persistently that God’s Spirit can no longer reach him. When a man reaches the point where he has blasphemed the Holy Spirit it is not because God has given up on him, but because he has stopped his ears from hearing God’s instruction so long that no matter how hard God tries to reach him, he can no longer hear God’s pleading upon his heart.

The Pharaoh of Moses’ day had reached that point. His heart had been so hardened that He refused to do what the Lord instructed. God said, “Harden not your heart, as in the provocation, and as in the day of temptation in the wilderness.” (Psalms 95:8) Once our hearts are hardened against hearing God’s Spirit speak to us, we have committed the “sin unto death” spoken of by John. (See 1 John 5:16)

The Bible says, “Grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.” (Ephesians 4:30) God’s Spirit is what seals us, or prepares us for the day when Christ will come to redeem His people. If we continually reject the only avenue by which God can work in our lives, then there is nothing more that God can do for us. That is why there is no forgiveness for the blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Not that God is unwilling to forgive, but that the person who does this is unwilling to be forgiven.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the January 2004 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: Where are OT promises of the Comforter?

“I just read the October 2003 issue of the Present Truth newsletter. That was one of the best articles I have read on the Holy Spirit. I have a question on something you said in the article. On page 3, under the heading of ‘The Promised Comforter,’ at the end of the 3rd paragraph, the last sentence says, ‘They all died without receiving the promise of the Comforter that Jesus spoke about in John 14 and Acts 1.’ I always thought that the promise made to the patriarchs, or maybe I just mean Abraham, was the promise of a Heavenly Canaan. Where in the Old Testament does God promise the mighty men and women of faith the Comforter?”

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Answer:

I am glad you enjoyed the article on the Holy Spirit. You asked a very good question concerning it. You are right that God promised the heavenly Canaan to Abraham and others. That is brought out in Hebrews 11:13-16. Here it talks about Abraham not receiving the promises. Yet, in Hebrews 11:39 and 40, the Bible tells us that the great men of old did not receive THE promise. This is talking about a particular promise. The Bible continues by saying, “God having provided some better thing for us, that they without us should not be made perfect.” (Hebrews 11:40) Here we are told that God has provided something better for us than He did for the great men of old, and it is spoken of in connection with becoming perfect. This could not be referring to the heavenly Canaan, for Abraham will partake of that promise just as fully as will we.

The first and greatest promise that God gave is found in Genesis 3:15, where it says, “And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.” Here is a promise of the coming of Christ and His victory over the wicked one. Paul expressed it this way, “Of this man’s seed hath God according to his promise raised unto Israel a Saviour, Jesus.” (Acts 13:23) Yet, this promise would be only sufficient to save us from past sins, and ineffective to give us the victory over present sins unless Christ would come to live His righteous life within us. This was Paul’s experience, for he said, “I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me.” (Galatians 2:20) So, in connection with the promise of God to send Christ to save us from our sins, is the promise that He would live His righteous life in us to bring us to perfection. God said, “I will put my spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes, and ye shall keep my judgments, and do them.” (Ezekiel 36:27)

There are many places in the Old Testament where God promised to give us His Spirit. The most notable is Joel 2:28, 29, where Joel prophesied of the coming of the Comforter. On the day of Pentecost, Peter proclaimed that the coming of the Comforter was a fulfillment of Joel’s prophecy. He said, “This is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams.” ( Acts 2:16, 17)

God spoke through Solomon, when he wrote of the gift of the Spirit, saying, “Turn you at my reproof: behold, I will pour out my spirit unto you, I will make known my words unto you.” (Proverbs 1:23) Isaiah prophesied, “Until the spirit be poured upon us from on high, and the wilderness be a fruitful field, and the fruitful field be counted for a forest.” (Isaiah 32:15) God said, through Isaiah, “I will pour water upon him that is thirsty, and floods upon the dry ground: I will pour my spirit upon thy seed, and my blessing upon thine offspring.” (Isaiah 44:3)

As you can see, God promised to give His Spirit to His people, and Joel’s prophecy was not fulfilled until the Day of Pentecost when the Spirit was poured out upon the disciples. Therefore, the great men of old, did not receive this promise. Please do not get me wrong, they had the Spirit of God living in them, but it was not in the same way that we can have it today, as was explained in the October, 2003 issue of Present Truth.

I hope this helps to answer your question.

This question and its answer were printed in the January 2004 issue of Present Truth.

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Question: The personality of the Holy Spirit

“Could you explain 1 Corinthians 12:4-6 and 2 Corinthians 13:14. There seems to be a sign-off by the Holy Spirit, possibly.”

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Answer:

Thank you for your question. First Corinthians 12:4-6 says, “Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit. And there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord. And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all.” Some have read this passage and concluded that it refers to three separate persons of a trinity god. However, the text does not require such an interpretation. A similar passage is found in Ephesians 4:4-6, which says, “There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.” Notice that the one God here is only one Person, the Father, and nobody else. This also agrees with the rest of Paul’s writings on this subject. Earlier in his letter he wrote, “To us there is but one God, the Father.” (1 Corinthians 8:6) Paul knew that there is only one God, the Father, and that His Son is our Lord Jesus Christ. “That ye may with one mind and one mouth glorify God, even the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” (Romans 15:6)

The context of 1 Corinthians 12:4-6 is talking about the diversity of the members of the church and their gifts, pointing out that there is only one God who designed that it should be so. Verse 13 says, “For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether we be Jews or Gentiles, whether we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.” Paul is pointing out that we are all united by the same “one Spirit” that fills us all and gives each of us different gifts to minister to the body. Whose “one Spirit” is this referring to? Verse 18 says, “But now hath God set the members every one of them in the body, as it hath pleased him.” Notice who is in control here. God, the Father, is the One who gives these gifts to men by His own Holy Spirit. “If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children: how much more shall your heavenly Father give the Holy Spirit to them that ask him?” (Luke 11:13) “The Spirit of truth,… proceedeth from the Father.” (John 15:26) This one Spirit is “the Spirit of your Father” (Matthew 10:20), not a separate person from Him.

Only poor Bible study could conclude that 1 Corinthians 12:4-6 teaches something contrary to the rest of the Bible. Paul did not have a trinity in mind when he wrote this passage. In fact, neither did any other Christian of his day, for the trinity was not formulated until nearly four hundred years later. (Please read our new book entitled, God’s Love on Trial for further details on this point.)

You also asked about 2 Corinthians 13:14, which says, “The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion [koinwniakoinonia] of the Holy Ghost, be with you all. Amen.” Many suppose that this verse means that God is made up of three persons. However, let’s examine the facts. Who is God in this verse? The only Person referred to as God in this verse is God the Father. Paul obviously did not write this to promote the idea that God is made up of three persons but, instead, that God is only one Person. This agrees with Paul’s earlier letter to the Corinthians, when he wrote, “To us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.” (1 Corinthians 8:6) According to Paul, the “one God” of the Bible is God the Father alone. The “one Lord” is Jesus Christ. If the “one God” is the Father, and the “one Lord” is Jesus Christ in this verse, who is the Holy Spirit? We noticed earlier that it is the Spirit of the Father.

Some say that the term “the communion of the Holy Ghost” proves that the Holy Ghost must be a separate individual from the Father and Son. But Paul also wrote, “That I may know him, and the power of his resurrection, and the fellowship [koinwniakoinonia] of his sufferings, being made conformable unto his death.” (Philippians 3:10) Here Paul uses the very same Greek word that he used in 2 Corinthians 13:14. He says that he wished to know the fellowship or the communion of His sufferings. To have fellowship means we partake of something. We are to partake of God’s Spirit and the sufferings of Christ.

In 1 John 1:3 John used the same Greek word koinwnia. John explains to us with whom we are to have fellowship or communion. He says, “That which we have seen and heard declare we unto you, that ye also may have fellowship with us: and truly our fellowship [koinwnia koinonia] is with the Father, and with his Son Jesus Christ.” (1 John 1:3) Surely if John were acquainted with a third god, he would want us to have fellowship with him as well, but there is no mention of another person. John further states, “Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.” (2 John 9) “Both” means two, and only two.

So we are to have the grace of the Lord Jesus, the love of God, and be partakers of the Holy Spirit of God. There is no trinity in this verse.

I hope this helps to answer your questions.

This question and its answer were printed in the June 2004 issue of Present Truth.

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